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Let $f$ an entire function. Suppose that $|f(z)|\leq 1 + |z|^{1-\alpha}$ for $\alpha \in (0,1)$ and for all $z \in \mathbb{C}$. Prove that $f$ is constant.

I need to prove this statement without usinge Liouville's theorem.

I'm practically lost. At first, I repeated almost all the proof of the theorem.

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    $\begingroup$ You are basically reproducing the proof of Liouville's Theorem! $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 27, 2020 at 7:22
  • $\begingroup$ If $R=|b-a|+1$, how can $R \to \infty$ with $a,b$ fixed? $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 27, 2020 at 17:17
  • $\begingroup$ Well, I'm very lost in how to do it, so I thought the same argument could work. Nonetheless, for some days I have think in the problem, but I could not fine any other way to do it. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 28, 2020 at 6:39
  • $\begingroup$ Show derivative is zero and you’re on a connected domain so you’re constant. Classic trick. Showing that on its own is something. $\endgroup$ Commented yesterday

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Assume that $f$ is entire and that for each $z \in \mathbb{C}$ we have $|f(z)| \leq 1+ |z|^{1-\alpha}$ for an $\alpha \in (0,1)$.

Fix $z_0 \in \mathbb{C}$. We will show that $f'(z_0) = 0$. Let $C_R = \{ z \in \mathbb{C} | |z-z_0| = R \}$. By Cauchy's formula we have

\begin{align*}|f'(z_0)| &= \frac{1}{2\pi} \bigg| \int_{C_R} \frac{f(z)}{(z-z_0)^2} \, dx \bigg| \leq \frac{1}{2\pi} \max_{z \in C_R} \frac{|f(z)|}{|z-z_0|^2} \ell(C_R) \\ & \leq \frac{1}{2\pi} 2\pi R \frac{1}{R^2} \max_{\theta \in [0, 2\pi]} (1+|z_0 + Re^{i\theta}|^{1-\alpha}) \\ & \leq \frac{1}{R}(1+|z_0+R|^{1-\alpha}), \end{align*}

where we used that $z=z_0 + Re^{i\theta}$ for $\theta \in [0, 2\pi]$ on $C_R$. Since $f$ is entire, $R$ may be chosen arbitrarily. We let $R \rightarrow \infty$ and conclude that $f'(z_0)=0$.

In conclusion we have $f'(z)=0$ for alle $z \in \mathbb{C}$, which means that $f$ is constant. (This is only true since $\Bbb{C}$ is a connected domain).

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    $\begingroup$ Please read the body of the question, and not only the title. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 27, 2020 at 9:00
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    $\begingroup$ I have now edited the argument so that it fits the question specifically. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 27, 2020 at 10:11
  • $\begingroup$ Thank you @Fenris. Your answer helped me. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 28, 2020 at 6:38
  • $\begingroup$ Could you show us why if the derivative is zero it’s necessarily constant? lol I’m just joking but that itself requires proof because if you remove origin from the real number line and take on $-1$ for negatives and $1$ for positives you’re non constant but zero derivative.. $\endgroup$ Commented yesterday

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