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We are given a sequence of functions $\{f_n\}$ on $L^1[0,1]$ so that for each $g \in L^\infty[0,1]$, we have $\int f_ng$ converges. We are also given that there exists $u \in L^1$ such that $\lambda(|f_n|>M)\leq \lambda(|u| >M)$ for all $M>0$. How to prove that $f_n$ converges weakly to some $f \in L^1$?

My approach goes like this: first consider $|f_n|$ being bounded: $|f_n|\leq M$ for some $M$, and consider $T: L^1 \to (L^\infty)^*$ by $T(f_n)(g) := \int f_ng$ for $g \in L^\infty$, so that $T(f_n)$ converges in $(L^\infty)^*$. By boundedness of the sequence and Alaoglu theorem, we prove that $f_n \rightharpoonup f$. Does it makes sense?

Now for unbounded sequence, consider $\tilde{f}_n := f_n \chi_{|f_n|\leq M}$, so that $\tilde{f}_n$ is bounded and weak limit exists. How should I proceed?

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  • $\begingroup$ I have made a change. $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 10, 2021 at 17:01

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Let $\mu (A) =\lim \int_A f_n =\lim \int f_n g$ where $g=\chi_A$. Then $\mu$ is a real measure and $\mu << m$ where $m$ is the Lebesgue measure. Let $f=\frac {d\mu} {dm}$. Now $\int |f_n| =\int_0^{\infty} m\{x:|f_n(x)| >M\} dM \le \int_0^{\infty} m\{x:u(x) >M\} dM=\int u $. Hence, $\sup_n \int |f_n| <\infty$. We now have $\int f_n g =\int fg$ for any simple function $g$. Any $g \in L^{\infty}$ is a uniform limit of simple functions. Now you can use triangle inequality to show that $\int f_n g =\int fg$ for any $g \in L^{\infty}$.

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  • $\begingroup$ Do we have to first decompose $f = f_+ - f_-$ and apply your Radon Nikodym argument for each $f_+$ and $f_-$? And is it clear that $\mu$ defines a (signed) measure? $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 10, 2021 at 13:07
  • $\begingroup$ The fact that $\mu$ is real mesure is proved in Royden's book. Also Radon Nikodym Theorem holds for real measure too, so there is no need to split into positive and negative parts. @MLSo $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 10, 2021 at 23:13

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