I was attempting to solve a more daunting integral than usual as a fun challenge, and two more integrals came out as part of the answer.
$$ \int \frac x {x^2 + \frac 3 4} dx + {\frac 3 2}\int {\frac 1 {x^2 + \frac 3 4}} dx $$
The second integral is pretty clearly $\frac 3 {\sqrt 3} \tan^{-1}(\frac {2x} {\sqrt 3})$. However, I tried to use the same reasoning for the first integral, and figured a substitution for $x^2$ would yield the following:
$$ \frac 1 2 \int {\frac 1 {u^2 + \frac 3 4}} du = \frac {\sqrt 3} 3 \tan^{-1}(\frac {2u} {\sqrt 3}) $$
I didn't simplify further, because it seems I was wrong. The solution I found was to perform the substitution and evaluate the integral as ${\frac 1 2}\ln(u^2 + \frac 3 4)$, then continue from there.
I don't understand why the integral couldn't become an inverse tangent in this case and why the solution specifically resulted in a logarithm instead when the integral's form perfectly seemed like it'd become the inverse tangent. I understand if I had instead made my substitution $u = x^2 + \frac 3 4$ it would indeed become a natural log, but was what I did truly wrong? Why?