Due to some context, I have reason to believe that S(K(SII)) and SSI are actually equivalent CL terms. This is my attempt at a proof (assuming a and b to be arbitrary CL terms):
$$\text{S(K(SII))ab = SII(ab) = ab(ab)}$$
$$\text{SSIab = Saab = ab(ab)}$$
Since both simplify to the same form, can we say that S(K(SII)) and SSI are equivalent terms?
[This problem arose when I was looking to describe the Y-combinator using only S, K and I. The wikipedia definition starts with S(K(SII)), while mine starts with SSI]