3
$\begingroup$

Let $ X $ and $ Y $ be two random variables that satisfy $ E[X^2] + E[Y^2] < \infty $. Prove that $$ E[\sqrt{X^2 + Y^2}] \geq \sqrt{(E[X])^2 + (E[Y])^2}. $$ Based on the inequality above, construct the corresponding elementary inequality for a sequence of real numbers.

I can do the second part: The inequality $ E[\sqrt{X^2 + Y^2}] \geq \sqrt{(E[X])^2 + (E[Y])^2} $ suggests a corresponding inequality in the context of real numbers. For real numbers $ x_1, x_2, \dots, x_n $ and $ y_1, y_2, \dots, y_n $ , we can derive the following elementary inequality:

$$ \frac{1}{n} \sum_{i=1}^{n} \sqrt{x_i^2 + y_i^2} \geq \sqrt{\left( \frac{1}{n} \sum_{i=1}^{n} x_i \right)^2 + \left( \frac{1}{n} \sum_{i=1}^{n} y_i \right)^2 }. $$

This is the corresponding elementary inequality for a sequence of real numbers.

I'm stuck at the first part of the problem. I have tried to apply Jensen's inequality which states that that for a convex function $ f $ and a random variable $ Z $, $$ E[f(Z)] \geq f(E[Z]). $$ However,in this case, the function $ f(z) = \sqrt{z} $ is concave.
Also, I have proved that $f(x,y)=\sqrt{x^2+y^2}$ is convex in $\mathbb{R}^2.$
Any help for the proof of the first part's inequality I would be very grateful!

$\endgroup$
1
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Since you proved that $f(x,y)=\sqrt{x^2+y^2}$ is convex, what you want to prove is a direct consequence of the multivariate version of Jensen’s inequality. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 21, 2024 at 15:48

2 Answers 2

3
$\begingroup$

$$ \begin{align} & \;\;\;\;\,(EX)^2+(EY)^2 \\&= E[X\cdot EX+Y\cdot EY] \\&\le E\left[\sqrt{X^2+Y^2}\cdot \sqrt{(EX)^2+(EY)^2}\right]\tag1 \\&=E[\sqrt{X^2+Y^2}]\cdot \sqrt{(EX)^2+(EY)^2} \end{align} $$ The inequality in $(1)$ is the result of applying Cauchy-Schwarz to the inner product of $(X,Y)$ with $(EX,EY)$.

Letting $r=\sqrt{(EX)^2+(EY)^2}$, the above proves that $r^2\le E[\sqrt{X^2+Y^2}]\cdot r$. Conclude by dividing both sides by $r$.

$\endgroup$
0
1
$\begingroup$

$\sqrt {a^{2}+b^{2}}=\sup \{ac+bd: c^{2}+d^{2}=1\}$. So, RHS is $\sup \{cEX+dEY: c^{2}+d^{2}=1\}$. So RHS $=\sup \{E(cX+dY): c^{2}+d^{2}=1\}$. For any $c,d $ with $c^{2}+d^{2}=1$ we have $E(cX+dY) \le E\sqrt {X^{2}+Y^{2}}$ from which your inequality follows.

$\endgroup$

You must log in to answer this question.

Start asking to get answers

Find the answer to your question by asking.

Ask question

Explore related questions

See similar questions with these tags.