I am trying to comprehend a proof for a theorem that states between any $x, y \subset{\Bbb{R}}$, there exists $q\subset{\Bbb{Q}}$ such that $x<q<y$.
The proof in question is as follows:
Choose n such that $\frac{1}{n}< y-x$. Consider multiples of $\frac{1}{n}$ which are unbounded. Choose the first multiple such that $\frac{m}{n}>x.$ We claim that $\frac{m}{n}<y.$
If that is not the case, we would have $\frac{m-1}{n}<x$ and $\frac{m}{n}>y$. but these imply that $\frac{1}{n}>y-x,$ which is a contradiction.
I understand that the first statement follows from the Archimedean principle, but I cannot grasp the intuition for the rest of the proof.
Most of my confusion arises at the last line, starting from how we arrived to the conclusion that $\frac{m-1}{n}<x.$