I'm just learning basic ring theory and had a question about the definition of a principal ideal. For a commutative ring $R$ with unity, Fraleigh defines the principal ideal generated by $a\in R$ as $\langle a\rangle = \{ra:r\in R\}$. My question is, why do we need to assume that $R$ has a unity? It seems like $\langle a\rangle$ fits the criterion for an ideal without it. Is this the standard definition? If so, do we include the unity condition so that we can say that $a\in \langle a\rangle$? Also, if we require that every ring have a unity, wouldn't we have that the entire ring is a principal ideal of itself, since $R=\langle1\rangle$?
1 Answer
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1 Getting this out of unanswered-limbo
why do we need to assume that R has a unity? It seems like ⟨𝑎⟩ fits the criterion for an ideal without it.
If $R$ does not have identity, then you're correct: $\{aR\mid r\in R\}$ is an ideal. However, one doesn't know whether or not $a\in aR$ when there's no identity in $R$. That's something we would really like $\langle a\rangle$ to satisfy.
- 1$\begingroup$ Just saying that I like that you work on these. Ok in most cases the OP won't read the answer BUT since the questions will pop up in search results it is definitely worth it. $\endgroup$Martin Brandenburg– Martin Brandenburg2023-10-27 20:23:44 +00:00Commented Oct 27, 2023 at 20:23
\langleand\rangle, not<and>, so that you get $\langle a\rangle$ instead of the immensly uglier $<a>$ :-) $\endgroup$