It happens that, for any $m\geq 1$, $$\sum_{n=0}^{+\infty}\frac{(-1)^n}{(2n+1)^{2m+1}}=\frac{E_{2m}}{2\cdot(2m)!}\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right)^{2m+1}\tag{1}$$ where $E_{2m}$ is an integer number.
My proof works through the following lines: the LHS is: $$\frac{1}{(2m)!}\int_{0}^{1}\frac{(\log x)^{2m}}{1+x^2}dx = \frac{1}{2\cdot(2m)!}\int_{0}^{+\infty}\frac{(\log x)^{2m}}{1+x^2}dx,$$ so we just need to compute: $$\left.\frac{d^{2m}}{dk^{2m}}\int_{0}^{+\infty}\frac{x^k}{1+x^2}\right|_{k=0},\tag{2}$$ but: $$ \int_{0}^{+\infty}\frac{x^{1/r}}{1+x^2}\,dx = r\int_{0}^{+\infty}\frac{y^r}{1+y^{2r}}\,dy = \frac{\pi/2}{\cos(\pi/(2r))}$$ by the residue theorem, so $E_{2m}$ is just the absolute value of an Euler number, that belongs to $\mathbb{N}$.
Can someone provide a real-analytic proof of $(1)$?
