I'm reading Peskin & Schroeder and they give as a simple example the Lagrangian
$$\mathcal{L} = \frac{1}{2} (\partial_\mu \phi)^2$$
First of all, I'm guessing that $(\partial_\mu \phi)^2$ is abuse of notation for $\partial_\mu\phi\partial^\mu\phi$ . So how do I now calculate the term
$$\partial_\mu\left( \frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial (\partial_\mu\phi)} \right)~?$$
Should I treat the Lagrangian as a product of those two derivative terms, and use the product rule? I need to take the derivative w.r.t $\partial_\mu\phi$, so how should I treat $\partial^\mu \phi$?