I am trying to evaluate the following integral: $$ -\int \frac{dk}{(2\pi)}\int\frac{d\omega}{2\pi}\frac{\omega^2}{(\omega^2-v^2k\cdot k)(\omega-q\cdot k)^2}\left[1-\cos(k\cdot(x-x') -\omega(t-t'))\right].$$ I have done it with partial fractions, but I also want to do it via Schwinger parameters. After writing the cosine as exponential, one can write the integral as the sum of three contributions $I_1,I_2,I_3$ where $I_2$ and $I_3$ are related by inverting time and space. For $I_2$ I wrote: $$ \int_0^\infty d\alpha d\gamma d\beta \beta\int_0^\infty \frac{d\omega}{2\pi}\int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{dk}{2\pi} \omega^2 \exp\{-\omega(\gamma+\alpha+\beta+it)-k(v\alpha+q\beta-ix-v\gamma)\}.$$ We can write $-k(v\alpha+q\beta-ix-v\gamma)\}=-ik(-iv\alpha-iq\beta-x+iv\gamma)$. This simplifies the $k$-integral to the Fourier transform of the Dirac delta function. For the $\omega$-integral we can use the Laplace transform: $$\int_0^\infty dx x^ne^{-Ax}=\frac{n!}{A^{n+1}},$$ for $\Re(A)>0$. Evaluating the $k$ and $\omega$ integral thus gives: $$\delta(-iv\alpha-iq\beta-x+iv\gamma)\frac{2}{(\gamma+\alpha+\beta+it)^3},$$ The $\gamma$ integral has become trivial; $$2\int_0^\infty d\alpha\int_0^\infty d\beta \beta \frac{1}{(2\alpha+\beta(1+\frac{q}{v})+i(t-\frac{x}{v}))^3}. $$ The other integrals can be performed by $u$-substitution. My final answer is equal to: $$\frac{1}{2}(1+\frac{q}{v})^{2}[\log(R)-\log(-i(t-\frac{x}{v})(1+\frac{q}{v})^{-1})-1],$$ where $R$ is some cut-off.
My questions are:
- Is my use of Schwinger Feynman parameters correct?
- The result I got via partial fractions is different. This can be readily seen from the fact that the original integrand has 4 poles, where my answer seems only to take 1 pole into account. Does someone see the origin of this difference? PS, The result coming from the partial fraction is found via:
Which evaluates to: $$\int\frac{dk}{2\pi}\int\frac{d\omega}{2\pi}\left[\frac{1}{k}\left( \frac{c_1}{\omega+vk}+\frac{c_2}{\omega-vk}+\frac{c_3}{\omega-qk}\right)+\frac{c_4}{(\omega-qk)^2}\right]\cos(kx-\omega t),$$ $$c_1=\frac{v^2-v_F^2}{2v(q+v)^2}$$ $$c_2=\frac{v^2-v_F^2}{2v(q-v)^2}$$ $$c_3=\frac{2q(v^2-v_F^2)}{(q^2-v^2)^2}$$ $$c_4=\frac{q^2(v^2-v_F^2)}{v^2(q^2-v^2)}$$ where $v_F$ is the Fermi velocity. The integral then evaluates to some constant plus logarithms with one of the $c_i,i\in\{1,2,3\}$ as exponent within the logarithm.
edit:`` I have tried the following after the reply of Suraj; Having done the Gaussians as he proposed I'll start from the $\beta$ integral that Suraj wrote down. Then I take two time derivatives and collect odd terms (the $\beta$ in front will make these terms even such that the Gaussian is non-zero), the only odd term of the time derivative will be $-4\Delta t\beta$ we thus get (neglecting odd integrands): $$\int_0^\infty d\beta \frac{\Delta t\beta^2}{4\alpha^2} e^{-\frac{i}{4\alpha}B(\beta-b)^2-\frac{i}{4\alpha}C}, $$ where $B,C,$ follow from completing the square. Shifting and keeping non-linear terms we get something like: $$\int_0^\infty d\beta'\left[\beta'^2+b^2\right]e^{-\frac{i}{4\alpha}B\beta'^2-\frac{i}{4\alpha}C},$$ which evaluates to (using standard Gaussians): $$\left[\frac{1}{4}\sqrt{\frac{\pi (4\alpha)^3}{-iB^3}}+b^2\sqrt{\frac{4\alpha\pi}{iB}}\right]e^{-\frac{i}{4\alpha}C}.$$ We still have to do the $\alpha$-integral but the equation above does not have the form $\int d\alpha ]frac{1}{\alpha}e^{\frac{-iC}{4\alpha}}$ mentioned. I still do not see how the different logarithms would arise. Trying to rewrite the $\beta$ in the $\beta$ integral as a derivative in $q$ leads to a very long untidy expression, so I try to keep it in the form of standard Gaussians. Another thing is the sign difference in the square root; how can both roots be well-defined at the same time when one has a minus; $\sqrt{\frac{\pi (4\alpha)^3}{-iB^3}}$ and the other does not; $\sqrt{\frac{4\alpha\pi}{iB}}$.