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I am trying to evaluate the following integral: $$ -\int \frac{dk}{(2\pi)}\int\frac{d\omega}{2\pi}\frac{\omega^2}{(\omega^2-v^2k\cdot k)(\omega-q\cdot k)^2}\left[1-\cos(k\cdot(x-x') -\omega(t-t'))\right].$$ I have done it with partial fractions, but I also want to do it via Schwinger parameters. After writing the cosine as exponential, one can write the integral as the sum of three contributions $I_1,I_2,I_3$ where $I_2$ and $I_3$ are related by inverting time and space. For $I_2$ I wrote: $$ \int_0^\infty d\alpha d\gamma d\beta \beta\int_0^\infty \frac{d\omega}{2\pi}\int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{dk}{2\pi} \omega^2 \exp\{-\omega(\gamma+\alpha+\beta+it)-k(v\alpha+q\beta-ix-v\gamma)\}.$$ We can write $-k(v\alpha+q\beta-ix-v\gamma)\}=-ik(-iv\alpha-iq\beta-x+iv\gamma)$. This simplifies the $k$-integral to the Fourier transform of the Dirac delta function. For the $\omega$-integral we can use the Laplace transform: $$\int_0^\infty dx x^ne^{-Ax}=\frac{n!}{A^{n+1}},$$ for $\Re(A)>0$. Evaluating the $k$ and $\omega$ integral thus gives: $$\delta(-iv\alpha-iq\beta-x+iv\gamma)\frac{2}{(\gamma+\alpha+\beta+it)^3},$$ The $\gamma$ integral has become trivial; $$2\int_0^\infty d\alpha\int_0^\infty d\beta \beta \frac{1}{(2\alpha+\beta(1+\frac{q}{v})+i(t-\frac{x}{v}))^3}. $$ The other integrals can be performed by $u$-substitution. My final answer is equal to: $$\frac{1}{2}(1+\frac{q}{v})^{2}[\log(R)-\log(-i(t-\frac{x}{v})(1+\frac{q}{v})^{-1})-1],$$ where $R$ is some cut-off.

My questions are:

  1. Is my use of Schwinger Feynman parameters correct?
  2. The result I got via partial fractions is different. This can be readily seen from the fact that the original integrand has 4 poles, where my answer seems only to take 1 pole into account. Does someone see the origin of this difference? PS, The result coming from the partial fraction is found via:

Which evaluates to: $$\int\frac{dk}{2\pi}\int\frac{d\omega}{2\pi}\left[\frac{1}{k}\left( \frac{c_1}{\omega+vk}+\frac{c_2}{\omega-vk}+\frac{c_3}{\omega-qk}\right)+\frac{c_4}{(\omega-qk)^2}\right]\cos(kx-\omega t),$$ $$c_1=\frac{v^2-v_F^2}{2v(q+v)^2}$$ $$c_2=\frac{v^2-v_F^2}{2v(q-v)^2}$$ $$c_3=\frac{2q(v^2-v_F^2)}{(q^2-v^2)^2}$$ $$c_4=\frac{q^2(v^2-v_F^2)}{v^2(q^2-v^2)}$$ where $v_F$ is the Fermi velocity. The integral then evaluates to some constant plus logarithms with one of the $c_i,i\in\{1,2,3\}$ as exponent within the logarithm.

edit:`` I have tried the following after the reply of Suraj; Having done the Gaussians as he proposed I'll start from the $\beta$ integral that Suraj wrote down. Then I take two time derivatives and collect odd terms (the $\beta$ in front will make these terms even such that the Gaussian is non-zero), the only odd term of the time derivative will be $-4\Delta t\beta$ we thus get (neglecting odd integrands): $$\int_0^\infty d\beta \frac{\Delta t\beta^2}{4\alpha^2} e^{-\frac{i}{4\alpha}B(\beta-b)^2-\frac{i}{4\alpha}C}, $$ where $B,C,$ follow from completing the square. Shifting and keeping non-linear terms we get something like: $$\int_0^\infty d\beta'\left[\beta'^2+b^2\right]e^{-\frac{i}{4\alpha}B\beta'^2-\frac{i}{4\alpha}C},$$ which evaluates to (using standard Gaussians): $$\left[\frac{1}{4}\sqrt{\frac{\pi (4\alpha)^3}{-iB^3}}+b^2\sqrt{\frac{4\alpha\pi}{iB}}\right]e^{-\frac{i}{4\alpha}C}.$$ We still have to do the $\alpha$-integral but the equation above does not have the form $\int d\alpha ]frac{1}{\alpha}e^{\frac{-iC}{4\alpha}}$ mentioned. I still do not see how the different logarithms would arise. Trying to rewrite the $\beta$ in the $\beta$ integral as a derivative in $q$ leads to a very long untidy expression, so I try to keep it in the form of standard Gaussians. Another thing is the sign difference in the square root; how can both roots be well-defined at the same time when one has a minus; $\sqrt{\frac{\pi (4\alpha)^3}{-iB^3}}$ and the other does not; $\sqrt{\frac{4\alpha\pi}{iB}}$.

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    $\begingroup$ Crosspost to math.stackexchange.com/q/5101524 $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 12 at 23:52
  • $\begingroup$ Is this from a reference? Which page? Which Feynman diagram? Which context? $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 13 at 1:29
  • $\begingroup$ It is just an integral I am trying to work out myself, coming from a RPA approximation in condensed matter physics. So no reference, I am just confused about the application of the Schwinger parameters. I have the feeling that I am losing some of the pole structure of the original integral due to the use of the Schwinger parameters. I have tried to include i$\varepsilon$ inside the denominators but I do not see how that helps me. The relation between integrating using Schwinger parameters and how one would close the contour when doing contour integration is lost on me... $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 13 at 8:48

1 Answer 1

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So what went wronggg?

  • For a factor $1/(\omega^2-v^2k^2)$ on the real $\omega$ axis, you cannot use a Laplace $\int_0^\infty d\alpha,e^{-\alpha(\omega^2-v^2k^2)}$ because $\omega^2-v^2k^2$ is not positive definite. You need the causal (Feynman) representation $$ \frac{1}{\omega^2-v^2k^2+i0}=i\int_0^\infty d\alpha e^{i\alpha(\omega^2-v^2k^2+i0)}. $$ It fixes convergence and the contour.

  • For the double pole you should use $$ \frac{1}{(\omega-qk+i0)^2}=-\int_0^\infty d\beta \beta e^{i\beta(\omega-qk+i0)}. $$ Your laplace for $\omega^{-2}$ on $[0,\infty)$ is not the same object and it’s incompatible with integrating $\omega$ over $\mathbb R$.

  • With the correct Schwinger forms, the exponent has $+i\alpha \omega^2$ and $-i\alpha v^2 k^2$. That’s a quadratic in (k). $ -k(,v\alpha+q\beta - ix - v\gamma,) $ treats the $k$ dependence as linear and then $\int dk e^{ik(\cdots)}\sim 2\pi\delta(\cdots)$. That would only be ok if the exponent had no $k^2$ piece.

  • $\delta(-iv\alpha-iq\beta-x+iv\gamma)$ is not a thing in standard distribution theory on $\mathbb R$.

So buddy, you start from $$ \mathcal I = -\int \frac{dk}{2\pi}\int \frac{d\omega}{2\pi} \frac{\omega^2}{(\omega^2-v^2k^2+i0) (\omega-qk+i0)^2} \Big[1-\cos(k\Delta x-\omega\Delta t)\Big], $$ with $\Delta x=x-x'$ and $\Delta t=t-t'$. I will split the cosine as $\tfrac12(e^{i\Phi}+e^{-i\Phi})$, and then we'll treat the $I_1$ (the “1”), $I_2\propto e^{i\Phi}$, $I_3\propto e^{-i\Phi}$ separately and $I_3$ is the $(\Delta t,\Delta x)\mapsto-(\Delta t,\Delta x)$ mirror of $I_2$. Using the causal Schwinger representations $$ \frac{1}{\omega^2-v^2k^2+i0} = i\int_0^\infty d\alpha e^{,i\alpha(\omega^2-v^2k^2+i0)} \qquad \frac{1}{(\omega-qk+i0)^2} = -\int_0^\infty d\beta \beta e^{,i\beta(\omega-qk+i0)}. $$

Also convert the numerator by differentiation with respect to $\Delta t$: $$ \omega^2 e^{-i\omega\Delta t} = -\partial_{\Delta t}^2 e^{-i\omega\Delta t}, $$ which is ig the cleanest way to take $\omega^2$ through the Gaussians. For $I_2$ (the $+i\Phi$ phase), the integrand’s exponential is $$ \exp(i\alpha\omega^2 - i\alpha v^2 k^2 + i\beta\omega - i\beta qk + i k\Delta x - i\omega\Delta t). $$

Now the inner integrals are gaussian!

  • $\omega$ integral: complete the square in $\omega$: $$ \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{d\omega}{2\pi} e^{i\alpha\omega^2 + i(\beta-\Delta t)\omega} = \frac{1}{2\sqrt{\pi}}\frac{e^{-i\frac{(\beta-\Delta t)^2}{4\alpha}}}{\sqrt{-i\alpha}}. $$ Then apply $-\partial_{\Delta t}^2$ afterward to account for $\omega^2$.

  • $k$ integral: likewise, $$ \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{dk}{2\pi} e^{-i\alpha v^2 k^2 + i(\Delta x-\beta q)k} = \frac{1}{2\sqrt{\pi}}\frac{e^{i\frac{(\Delta x-\beta q)^2}{4\alpha v^2}}}{\sqrt{i\alpha v^2}}. $$

Multiply them, then act with $-\partial_{\Delta t}^2$ $$ I_2 = i\int_0^\infty d\alpha\int_0^\infty d\beta;\big(-\partial_{\Delta t}^2\big)\left[\frac{1}{4\pi}\frac{1}{\alpha v} e^{-i\frac{(\beta-\Delta t)^2}{4\alpha}} e^{,i\frac{(\Delta x-\beta q)^2}{4\alpha v^2}}\right]. $$

Do the $\alpha$ integral with the standard kernel $$ \int_0^\infty \frac{d\alpha}{\alpha} \exp (-i\frac{A}{\alpha}) = -i\pi,\text{sgn}(\Im A) - \ln A + \text{const}, $$ after completing the quadratic form in $\beta$. The phase in the exponent combines to $$ -\frac{i}{4\alpha}\left[(\beta-\Delta t)^2 - \frac{(\Delta x-\beta q)^2}{v^2}\right] = -\frac{i}{4\alpha}\left[(1-\frac{q^2}{v^2})\beta^2 -2\beta\Big(\Delta t+\frac{q \Delta x}{v^2}\Big) + \Delta t^2 - \frac{\Delta x^2}{v^2}\right]. $$

Provided $q^2\ne v^2$, we complete the square in $\beta$, integrate $\alpha$, then integrate $\beta$ using $\int_0^\infty \beta e^{-i s \beta^2} d\beta$ type formulae or by differentiating w.r.t. $q$. The outcome is a sum of logs whose branch points sit at the characteristic lines $$ \Delta t=\pm \frac{\Delta x}{v},\qquad \Delta t = q,\Delta x, $$ exactly the three kinematic loci you expect from the poles $\omega=\pm v k$ and $\omega=qk$ (with the double pole generating the stronger singularity along $\Delta t=q,\Delta x)$. Doing the mirror piece $I_3$ flips $(\Delta t,\Delta x)\to-(\Delta t,\Delta x)$. The $I_1$ (the “1” in $1-\cos$) gives the usual UV divergent constant you regulate with a cutoff or $\overline{\text{MS}}$ a d it sets the additive constant in front of the logs.

Why your result only “saw one pole”?

I believe this is because you effectively replaced the gaussian $k$ integral by a delta constraint that keeps a linear combination of $\alpha,\beta,\gamma$ to a complex number. That projection collapses the $\omega^2-v^2k^2$ to a single kinematic condition, so you only harvest logarithms associated with one branch cut. The real calculation keeps the full quadratic form, and the $\alpha$ integration generates the log kernel that knows about all three characteristic directions.

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  • $\begingroup$ Thanks a lot! I still have a couple small questions: 1) are we allowed to put the whole $\omega^2-v^2k^2$ in the Feynman representation? I thought we first had to write it like $(\omega-vk)(\omega+vk)$ and then use two parameters for (one for each pole). 2) I do not quite understand your notation after you did the $\alpha$ integral; what do the comma's mean, do we get a sum of $i\pi$ and the logarithm? 3) I am not very familiar with branch points so I do not quite see how the different logs arise, could you explain that point a bit further? $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 14 at 16:57
  • $\begingroup$ Aah I think I have cleard up my question 2), the comma should be a product, so: $-i\pi\text{sqn}\Im(A)-\log(A)+C,$ where $C$ is some (non-important) constant. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 14 at 21:04
  • $\begingroup$ I've tried it again, but I do not understand how you get a Gaussian for $\beta$ after the $\alpha$ integration; you get something proportional to $\int d\beta \beta \log(A(\beta))$ right? If I try doing the $\beta$ integration first I get a Gaussian over $\beta$ with an odd integrand ($\beta e^{-A\beta^2}$) which also does not feel right... $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 14 at 21:58
  • $\begingroup$ I have added my new attempt to my original question (see bottom under 'edit') $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 16 at 9:26

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