2
$\begingroup$

Let's say we describe an unstable particle using perturbation theory. Then we have a non-zero decay width, which we say $\Gamma$. Now, if we define mass to be the pole of the propagator, we get $$ \mu^2=m^2-\Re(\Gamma) $$ which is sometimes referred to as the Real(Breit Wigner) mass, where we still have the $\Im(\Gamma)$ left in the propagator, which gives the decay shape. This scheme defines the mass for most of the physical particles, like $ Z,W$, etc. But from twoloop corrections, this definition suffers from gauge dependence. What I guess, if we take the entire zero of the pole, we do get $\mu=m-i\Gamma/2$ as mass (complex scheme), and by definition, gauge invariant and physical, but can not describe the resonance shape. But in the real scheme, we do not take the entire zero hence we get gauge variance. As some literature like this one

The loop-corrected Higgs boson masses are defined through the complex poles of the propagator matrix which are evaluated by using an iterative method. While this method gives precise values of the complex poles, it mixes the contributions of different orders of perturbation theory and therefore introduces a dependence on the gauge parameter.

I do not understand which mass they are talking about. If they are taking about complex mass, how can it be gauge-dependent? Precisely, why from one-loop, the gauge dependence does not start (It starts from two-loop)?

$\endgroup$

1 Answer 1

0
$\begingroup$

The complex pole of the propagator is gauge invariant by definition, but when people talk about the “loop-corrected mass” they often mean the real part extracted through iterative methods. That mixes perturbative orders, so gauge dependence shows up starting at two loops. At one loop the difference between the pole definition and the Breit–Wigner–type definition is higher order, which is why the gauge issue doesn’t appear until later.

New contributor
Edward Kingman is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering. Check out our Code of Conduct.
$\endgroup$
2
  • $\begingroup$ I know. But what do you mean by "That mixes perturbative orders"? If the twoloop self-energy turns out to be gauge-dependent, then yes, mixing does introduce gauge dependence. Also could you please clarity: "At one loop the difference between the pole definition and the Breit–Wigner–type definition is higher order, which is why the gauge issue doesn’t appear until later."? $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 24 at 10:48
  • $\begingroup$ When you solve for the pole iteratively, you end up mixing different perturbative orders, so higher‑loop gauge dependence can creep into the “loop‑corrected mass.” At one loop the difference between the pole mass and the Breit–Wigner definition is formally of two‑loop size, so gauge dependence doesn’t show up until you actually go to two loops. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 24 at 11:02

Start asking to get answers

Find the answer to your question by asking.

Ask question

Explore related questions

See similar questions with these tags.