I've seen this stated Why are p-values uniformly distributed under the null hypothesis? and https://support.minitab.com/en-us/minitab-express/1/help-and-how-to/basic-statistics/inference/supporting-topics/basics/type-i-and-type-ii-error/#:~:text=The%20probability%20of%20making%20a,you%20reject%20the%20null%20hypothesis.&text=The%20probability%20of%20rejecting%20the,is%20equal%20to%201%E2%80%93%CE%B2 and essentially in my other resources.
The probability of rejecting the null hypothesis is the significance level $\alpha$, which we typically take as $\alpha = 0.05$. When we reject a null hypothesis, there are two possibilities: (1) the null hypothesis was in fact correct, so we made a type 1 error (2) the null hypothesis was in fact wrong, so made a correct choice.
(1) and (2) are disjoint events, and if we denote $p_1$ and $p_2$ to correspond to their probabilities, we have
$$ p_1 + p_2 = \alpha $$
So how is it that $\alpha$ is the probability of making a type 1 error? That would mean $p_1 = \alpha$? I guess I feel like the proper way of the phrase should be the probability of a type 1 error is at most $\alpha$?