I was reading pdf by caltech and in one of its section, Fourier transform of Unit step signal is calculated but I am confused, how this can be possible if region of convergence for Laplace transform ($1/s$) of unit step signal does not contain imaginary axis?
And if above case is possible then if it given that impulse response of a system is Unit step then frequency response of it should also exist and equal to $H(ω)= πδ(ω) + 1/jω$ and then can we calculate Fourier transform of output by computing $H(ω)X(ω)$ where $X(ω)$ is Fourier transform of input?