A few thoughts - sorry, too long for a comment.
Different risk measures are more useful for different uses and different users. For example, imagine a "first line" trader who takes views like "I bet that the 10Y UST - 2Y UST spread will widen!", knows that his book doesn't have much sensitivity to a parallel shift of the curve, doesn't care about other sensitivities that he believes to be immaterial, doesn't even care about the sensitivity to the historical 2nd PC because he thinks he sees the future better than the history predicts and than the other market participants, which is fine. In a large enough organization, there will be a "second line" risk person, whose pay does not improve if the first line wins his bet, who might want to monitor the sensitivities to some numbers of standard deviations of the 2nd PC, providing a little more color than both the VaR, which mashes everything into one number, and the sensitivities to 1bp bump, which don't use historical volatilities.
For example, consider the interest rate risk of an fx forward, where in 1 year you will pay some amount of USD and will receive some amount of emerging market local currency whose present value right now has the same order of magnitude as the USD leg. Suppose you see a risk report showing that the market to market of the USD leg will change by some amount of the USD interest rate moves 1bp (i.e. the dv01); and likewise a much smaller amount by which the local currency leg's dollar pv will change if the local currency interest rate moves 1bp. That looks confusing and useless, until you recall that the local currency interest rate is about 50% per annum, and historically fluctuates hundreds of basis points every day. The VaR is more informative, but it's one number. Few people have a VaR tool that would show component VaR or margin VaR down to the level of one side of an fx forward. Whereas, expressing the interest rate sensitivities as a dollar impact s of 1 standard deviation move of the first PC, this combining the sensitivity with historical volatility, shows more than the dv01.
Or, imagine a junior "first line" trader whose job is to flatten the unwanted rate risk arising as a side effect of more senior traders taking bets on credit spreads or commodities. The only risk measures he cares about are the ones he's tasked with flattening, calculated by the various pricing models. His second line market risk guy might check that he's flattening adequately and ponder whether more sensitivities should be calculated. His second line product control guy might be looking at the sensitivities to curve fitting instruments, ie futures, to minimize unexplained P&L, rather than to the 18m, 1y, 2y.. par swap rates that the market risk guys might monitor. His second line model risk guy might be monitoring some cross-gammas between rates and time in the context of ongoing performance monitoring of pricing models. Etc
Factor sensitivities often need to be aggregable. If you're the only one looking at your risk, then you can choose your tenor buckets to be just 0-2Y and 2Y-$\infty$, and look to sensitivities to forward rates, rather than par rates. But if a second line person needs to add up your sensitivities with someone else's, then you need to agree on what market factors are perturbed and how. Eg you don't want to add up one books sensitivity to forward rate down 1bp to another books sensitivity to par rate up 1bp. If you do want PC sensitivities, then you want to ensure that everyone uses the same loadings.
VaR/ES/SVaR is not enough. Since everyone remember LTCM, let's recall what killed them, a much simpler trade than the complicated stuff on which they earned lots of money:
Their view was simply that the swap rate - treasury spread would usually be less than Fixed. But Sandy Weill decided to unwind Salomon's Relative Value book, and the swap rate widened relative to treasury like it never did historically, and LTCM couldn't meet margin calls. You wouldn't see this possibility in VaR. You'd need to look at the spread sensitivity ro decide if it is within your risk appetite. Or, consider what happened to the cash-ftures basis in March 2020 - it widened like it never did before.
MC for interest rate VaR is tricky. If you simulate each tenor with volatilities and correlations, and look at the scenarios in the tail, you will feel that these scenarios don't seem realistic - despite having the specified volatilities and correlations, the curve just doesn't move like this. If you use only the first 3 PCs for MC, then the simulations won't be unusual enough. You need to useat least 5-6 PCs.