Consider the $N$ i.i.d. values
$$ X_i \sim \mathcal{N}(0, \sigma^2) $$
such that
$$ Z_i = \sum_{j=1}^i X_j $$
I am interested in the distribution
$$ f(X_i | Z_N = z) $$
Mean
Under the condition, the $X_i$ are no longer independent, but they should remain identically distributed. Hence
$$ Z_N = \sum_{i=1}^N X_i = z $$
implies
$$ \sum_{i=1}^N \mathbb{E}[X_i] = z $$
and therefore
$$ \mathbb{E}[X_i] = z/N $$
Variance
Empirically I found the variance to be
$$ var(X_i) = \frac{N-1}{N} \sigma^2 $$
Distribution
If you start doing the calculations to find the distribution working backwards from $X_N$ I believe you are simply finding the product of many Gaussian distributions so I believe the distribution is going to be Gaussian. However I ran into issues with this after the first step.
Question
How do I show rigorously that the marginal distribution
$$ (X_i | Z_N = z) \sim \mathcal{N} \left (\frac{z}{N}, \frac{N-1}{N} \sigma^2 \right) $$