Some articles say that naive Bayes is naive because of "independence of attributes". Whereas others say "independence of attributes within a class". Can anybody please clear this confusion? Thanks
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1 Naive Bayes doesn't assume independence of attributes ... It assumes conditional independence (or what you call independence within a class). This allows us to write the likelihood in the bayes rule P(X | Y) as the product of all P(Xi | Y), where X = (X1, ... Xi, ... Xn) and n is the number of attributes.
- $\begingroup$ No, I'm afraid you have it backward. It is naive because it assumes the samples are independent. This makes calculations much easier. The predictors are treated as if they are naive of conditions. The predictors are treated as if they essentially independent. analyticsvidhya.com/blog/2017/09/naive-bayes-explained $\endgroup$mccurcio– mccurcio2020-08-17 20:30:40 +00:00Commented Aug 17, 2020 at 20:30