This is a quote from page 1, volume III of Principia Mathematica, by Whitehead and Russell: "A 'well-ordered' series is one which is such that every existent class contained in it has a first term, or, what comes to the same thing, one which is such that every class which has successors has a sequent." The second part of that sentence seems to imply, in modern terminology, that a (linearly ordered) set A's being well-ordered is equivalent to: for every non-empty subset B of A such that B has an upper bound in A not in B, there exists in A an element a such that a is the next element in A after B, i.e., that if there exists a c in A such that c is greater than every d in B, then there exists an a in A such that a is greater than every e in B, and there does not exist an f in A such that f is greater than every g in B and a is greater than f. (Sorry if that was excessively tedious) An obvious counter-example to this statement of PM is Z, the positive and negative integers and zero. Z is such that for every non-empty subset B of Z which has an upper bound in Z not in B, there exists in Z a next element after B, but Z is not well-ordered, since Z is a non-empty subset of Z which has no first term. Link to PM v III: https://quod.lib.umich.edu/u/umhistmath/aat3201.0003.001/2?page=root;rgn=works;size=100;view=pdf;rgn1=title;q1=Principia+Mathematica
Is my interpretation of the terminology of PM correct, and if so, is this elementary error in PM well-known, and what do mathematicians and logicians think of it?