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I’ve discovered a sequence based on differences, I’m trying to convert this to a series formula. It converges to zero so this should be possible.

Here is the sequence using $x^n$ (where for simplicity I use $x^2$):

$$ x = 1,2,3,4,5,\dots $$ $$ x^2 = 1,4,9,16,25,\dots $$

1st difference $D_1$ (using $25-16, 16-9, 9-4, \dots$): $$ D_1 = 9,7,5,\dots $$

2nd difference $D_2$ (using $9-7, 7-5, \dots$): $$ D_2 = 2! $$

3rd difference $D_3$: $$ D_3 = 2-2 = 0 $$

I used factorial 2 here as an example because whatever values of $x^n$ is used the factorial ($n!$) appears. This leads to similarities with derivatives: $$ f^n x^n = n! \quad \text{where my } D\text{'s give } D^n x^n = n! $$

I have shown a few professors this and they basically say “wonderful spot” etc but that’s all.

Now I have converted this to algebraic form:

$$ D_1 = (x+1)^n - x^n \quad \text{for } x^1, x^2, x^3, \dots $$ $$ D_2 = \bigl((x+2)^n - (x+1)^n\bigr) - D_1 $$ $$ D_3 = \bigl((x+3)^n - (x+2)^n\bigr) - D_2 \quad (\text{here } D_2 \text{ would include } D_1) $$ $$ D_4 = \bigl((x+4)^n - (x+3)^n\bigr) - D_3 \quad (\text{as above}) $$

$$ \vdots $$

$$ D_{n-1} = \bigl((x+(n-1))^n - (x+(n-2))^n\bigr) - D_{n-2} \quad \text{for } x^{n-1} $$ $$ D_n = \bigl((x+n)^n - (x+(n-1))^n\bigr) - D_{n-1} $$

$$ D_{n+1} = 0 $$

I hope I haven’t made any fundamental mistakes in my sequence.

There are 3 take-aways from this (for all n’s): a. Dnx^n=n! or (Dnx^n)/n! = 1 for (-∞>n>∞) and -∞…-2,-1,0,1,2,…∞ b. D(n+1)=0 which shows series converges to 0 c.fn^n= n! and Dn^n= n! but Dn ≠ fn (to be shown)

I realise now that this is very similar to classical finite difference calculus and I need to study the subject fully, can anyone point me in the right direction to start off.

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  • $\begingroup$ The outline of the post didn’t match the draft so apologies $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 18 at 4:51
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    $\begingroup$ It is difficult to tell for sure because your post is cluttered, but have you got a question about something not explained in a relevant Wikipedia article (set $h=1$ there)? $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 18 at 4:59
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    $\begingroup$ You've discovered the calculus of finite differences, congrats! $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 18 at 5:03
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    $\begingroup$ Thanks Gary for the edit, reads better now. Gerry, I have a coherent sequence, this can be expressed as a series where Sn = n. Because $(Dn x^n)/n!=1 ……surely? $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 18 at 6:27
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    $\begingroup$ "I have a coherent sequence...." You have a lot of sequences. I don't know to which of your many sequences you are referring, and I don't know what it means for a sequence to be "coherent". I don't know what you have in mind when you write that a sequence can be expressed as a series – a sequence and a series are two very different things. I don't know what you mean by Sn. Maybe that's supposed to be $S_n$, but you don't introduce that notation anywhere in the question, so I don't know what you mean by it. All told, less a question, more a dog's breakfast. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 18 at 8:36

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