The counting measure on $\mathbb{R}^n$ is a map that takes a subset $A$ of $\mathbb{R}^n$ and returns its cardinality if it is finite or the symbol $\infty$ if it is infinite.
So, if $A\subseteq\mathbb{R}^n$ is countably infinite and $B\subseteq\mathbb{R}^n$ is uncountable, then the two sets have different cardinality but the same counting measure, which is a bit odd.
We could solve this "problem" (if one considers this a problem) by redefining the counting measure to be just the cardinality, i.e. for finite sets nothing changes, but infinite sets are mapped to cardinal numbers. But the problem is that this "measure" is no longer a $[0,\infty]$-valued map, but the codomain would include infinite cardinal numbers.
Okay, now turn to a more interesting measure, namely the $1$-dimensional Hausdorff-measure on $\mathbb{R}^2$. This measure assigns to a measurable set the length of this set. So, if the set is a rectifyable curve, it gets its usual length, and a straight line gets the symbol $\infty$. Now, as in the counting measure case, there are different versions of set of infinite measure. A line in the plane is of infinite length, but it is a countable union of segments of finite length. The same is true for a countable union of lines. BUT the whole plane is in a way "more" infinite, as it is not a countable union of segments of finite length. So, one could argue that there are different sizes of infinite measure in this case as well.
So, one could say that the $1$-dimensional Hausdorff-measure of a straight line is $\aleph_0$, while the Hausdorff-measure of the whole plane is the continuum (even though both sets contain the same number of points).
So, one could extend the idea of a $[0,\infty]$-valued $1$-dimensional Hausdorff-measure to a "measure" that takes non-negative real-numbers and cardinal numbers as values.
The same should work for all $d$-dimensional Hausdorff-measures on arbitrary metric spaces and I can finally come to my question:
Question Part 1) Is a measure taking non-negative real-numbers as well as infinite cardinal numbers a useful thing to consider or is there a good reason why one should not do that?
Question Part 2) Has this been considered before?
Thanks to all who read this text up this point! :-)
Edit: Maybe, to make it more clear what I mean. My idea was along the lines that the measure of set should be $\leq \kappa$ if the set can be written as the union of $\kappa$-many sets of finite measure. But I already can see a few problems with this approach: The whole idea of a measure is build on countability, uncountable union of null-sets need not be null-sets and so on, that probably this could somehow lead to problems?