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This question concerns the definition of dimensional regularization in quantum field theory, specifically as presented in this Wilson paper (see free version here).

This operation must fulfill three axioms:

  • (A1) Linearity: $\int (\alpha f(x) + \beta g(x)) d^d x = \alpha \int f(x) d^d x + \beta \int g(x) d^d x.$
  • (A2) Invariance under translations $\int f(x+y) d^d x = \int f(x) d^d x.$
  • (A3) Scaling: $\int f(s x) d^d x = s^{-d} \int f(x) d^d x.$

Contrary to what is sometimes claimed, this is not an integral over a $d$-dimensional space. Is this scaling property what justifies the name of $d$-dimensional integral.

My question is about the proof that such operation is unique (up to normalisation). Which basically consists on saying that any function $f(x)$ can be written in terms of $e^{-s^2(x+y)^2}$ and the derivatives. With axioms 2 and 3 it is possible to prove that $\int e^{-s^2(x+y)^2} d^d x \propto \int e^{-x^2} d^d x$, therefore they are uniquely determined up to a noramlisation factor give by the value we give to $\int e^{-x^2} d^d x$.

However, in the text between eqs. (A6-7) he says that axiom 1 is enough to prove the same for any function $f$. I don't see why this is true. He seems to be assuming these two properties

  1. $\lim_{n\to \infty} \int f_n(x) d^d x = \int \lim_{n \to \infty} f_n(x) d^d x.$

  2. $\int \frac{\partial}{\partial s} f_s(x)d^d x = \frac{d}{d s} \int f_s(x) d^d x.$

Is there a justification for these two properties following from the axioms? Do you know of other sources where $d$-dimensional integrals are defined with complete rigor?

Note: A related version of this question was posted on Math.SE, but I am reposting it here since its physics implications may be more relevant to this community.

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    $\begingroup$ If you promote your integral to a continuous linear functional on Schwartz space, then translation invariance + homogeneity force $I_d[f] = C_d \hat{f}(0)$ for all $f \in \cal{S}$; continuity then justifies your limit and parameter derivative steps, and the whole construction is unique up to the single normalization $C_d = I_d[e^{-|x|^2}]$. Briefly, by Fourier transform, translation invariance means $\tilde{I_d}$ is supported at $k = 0$, so $\tilde{I_d} = \sum c_\alpha\partial^\alpha \delta$; homogeneity in $k$ kills all $|\alpha| \ge 1$, leaving $C_d \delta$. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 17 at 15:54
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    $\begingroup$ @DLangley Please do not answer (or partially answer) in comments. Please post an answer (or partial answer). Note that comments are not persistent and you also gain more reputation points for an upvote to an answer than a comment. Comments are intended for seeking clarification of questions or explaining downvotes or close votes (if people want to do that).. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 17 at 17:19
  • $\begingroup$ @DLangley. Yes it would be really nice if you could write an answer. First to understand that uniqueness is true for Schwartz functions, but also I would like to know if this requirement can be relaxed, since I think not all functions one integrated in $d$-dimensions in physics are Schwartz. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 24 at 9:26

1 Answer 1

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Sketched existence proof:

  1. Ref. 1 assumes Euclidean signature, i.e. that the Wick rotation has already been performed.

  2. We would like to define the integral $$I_d[f]~=~\int_{\mathbb{R}^d}\!d^dp~f(p)\tag{i}$$ for complex dimension $d\in\mathbb{C}$. Ref. 1 assumes

    • $\mathbb{C}$-linearity (A1),

    • translation invariance (A2),

    • homogeneity (A3).

  3. Using analytic continuation in $d\in\mathbb{C}$, it is enough to define $I_d[f]$ for dimension $d\in ]c_f,\infty[$ in an open interval$^1$ $]c_f,\infty[$ for a sufficiently large number $c_f\geq 0$.

  4. Now let us try to extract a rigorous existence proof from the heuristic arguments of Ref. 1. Around eqs. (A14-15) Ref. 1 seems to suggest that if the integrand is of the form $$p~\mapsto~ f(p^2, p\cdot q_1,\ldots, p\cdot q_n)\tag{ii}$$ with $n$ external $d$-momenta$^2$ $q_1,\ldots ,q_n\in \mathbb{R}^d$, where the function $f\in{\cal S}(\mathbb{R}^{n+1})$ belongs to a Schwartz space, we choose the dimension $d>n$, and split $$p~=~\underbrace{p_{\parallel}}_{\in~V}+\underbrace{p_{\perp}}_{\in~V^{\perp}}, \qquad p_{\parallel}~=~\sum_{i=1}^np_i q_i~\in~V~:=~{\rm span}_{\mathbb{R}}(q_1,\ldots ,q_n),\tag{iii}$$ then the integral is factorized as $$I_d[f]~=~\int_{\mathbb{R}^n}\!d^np_{\parallel} \int_{\mathbb{R}^{d-n}}\!d^{d-n}p_{\perp}~f(p_{\perp}^2+p_{\parallel}^2,p_{\parallel}\cdot q_1,\ldots,p_{\parallel}\cdot q_n).\tag{iv}$$

  5. With point 4 in mind, in practice, it is therefore enough to define the integral $I_d[f]$ for spherically symmetric integrands $$p~\mapsto~ f(p^2),\tag{v}$$ where the function $f\in{\cal S}(\mathbb{R})$.

    • For positive integer dimension $d\in\mathbb{N}$ we use spherical coordinates $$I_d[f]~=~{\rm Vol}(\mathbb{S}^{d-1})\int_{\mathbb{R}_+} \!p^{d-1}dp ~f(p^2) ~=~\frac{2\pi^{\frac{d}{2}}}{\Gamma(\frac{d}{2})}\int_{\mathbb{R}_+} \!p^{d-1}dp ~f(p^2),\tag{vi}$$ cf. eqs. (A9-10).

    • For positive dimension $d>0$, we naturally generalize (vi) to define
      $$I_d[f]~:=~\frac{2\pi^{\frac{d}{2}}}{\Gamma(\frac{d}{2})}\int_{\mathbb{R}_+} \!p^{d-1}dp ~f(p^2).\tag{vii}$$

  6. The integral $I_d[f]$ is essentially uniquely defined up to multiplication with an arbitrary over-all holomorphic normalization function $\mathbb{C}\ni d\mapsto {\cal N}(d)\in \mathbb{C}$ that satisfies $$ {\cal N}(\mathbb{N})~=~1, \tag{viii}$$ whose effect may be compensated by counterterms, cf. the discussion on p. 2924 in Ref. 1.

References:

  1. K.G. Wilson, QFT Models in Less Than 4D, Phys. Rev. D7 (1973) 2911; App. A.

$^1$ NB: Be aware that this is different from traditional dimensional regularization, where the integrand is a rational/meromorphic function and the open interval is on the form $]-\infty, c_f[$ for a sufficiently small number $c_f\in\mathbb{R}$. In contrast, Ref. 1 seems to basically focus on integrands that are Schwartz functions.

$^2$ It is unclear what a $d$-momentum $q_i\in\mathbb{R}^d$ exactly means for a non-integer $d$. However, we only use that the $d$-momenta $q_1,\ldots ,q_n$ is a basis for a finite-dimensional $\mathbb{R}$-vector space $V$, and that the integral (iv) effectively only depends on $q_1,\ldots ,q_n$ through the scalar products $q_i\cdot q_j\in\mathbb{R}$.

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  • $\begingroup$ The square brackets in point 3 looks funny (unless it is some notation I'm not familiar with). $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 24 at 3:28
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    $\begingroup$ Pardon my French: It's Bourbaki notation for an open interval :-) $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 24 at 6:27
  • $\begingroup$ Thank you for your answer @Qmechanic. However, I do not have a problem with the existence of the integral. My question was precisely about your last point, which is the proof that axioms A1, A2 and A3 are enough to prove uniqueness. Also, for your point 4) I don't see where Wilson defines $f$ to be Schwartz. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 24 at 9:21

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